Ecosystems Multiple Choice




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TítuloEcosystems Multiple Choice
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Ecosystems


Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.


____ 1. The branch of biology dealing with interactions among organisms and between organisms and their environment is called

a.

economy.

c.

recycling.

b.

modeling.

d.

ecology.



____ 2. The combined portions of Earth in which all living things exist is called the

a.

biome.

c.

ecosystem.

b.

community.

d.

biosphere.



____ 3. All of the members of a particular species that live in one area are called a(an)

a.

biome.

c.

community.

b.

population.

d.

ecosystem.



____ 4. Which of the following is NOT a basic method used by ecologists to study the living world?

a.

experimenting

c.

modeling

b.

classifying

d.

observing



____ 5. Which ecological inquiry method is an ecologist using when he or she enters an area periodically to count the population numbers of a certain species?

a.

questioning

c.

experimenting

b.

observing

d.

modeling



____ 6. A mathematical formula designed to predict population fluctuations in a community could be called a(an)

a.

biological experiment.

c.

ecological model.

b.

biological system.

d.

ecological observation.



____ 7. Plants are

a.

producers.

c.

herbivores.

b.

consumers.

d.

omnivores.



____ 8. What is the original source of almost all the energy in most ecosystems?

a.

carbohydrates

c.

water

b.

sunlight

d.

carbon






Figure 3–1


____ 9. The algae at the beginning of the food chain in Figure 3–1 are

a.

consumers.

c.

producers.

b.

decomposers.

d.

heterotrophs.



____ 10. Which of the following organisms does NOT require sunlight to live?

a.

chemosynthetic bacteria

c.

trees

b.

algae

d.

photosynthetic bacteria



____ 11. An organism that cannot make its own food is called a(an)

a.

heterotroph.

c.

autotroph.

b.

chemotroph.

d.

producer.



____ 12. Organisms that obtain nutrients by breaking down dead and decaying plants and animals are called

a.

decomposers.

c.

autotrophs.

b.

omnivores.

d.

producers.



____ 13. All the interconnected feeding relationships in an ecosystem make up a food

a.

interaction.

c.

network.

b.

chain.

d.

web.



____ 14. The total amount of living tissue within a given trophic level is called the

a.

organic mass.

c.

energy mass.

b.

trophic mass.

d.

biomass.



____ 15. What animals eat both producers and consumers?

a.

herbivores

c.

chemotrophs

b.

omnivores

d.

autotrophs






Figure 3–2


____ 16. The trophic levels in Figure 3–2 illustrate

a.

the relative amount of energy at each level.

b.

the amount of living organic matter at each level.

c.

the relative number of individual organisms at each level.

d.

that the producers outnumber first-level consumers.



____ 17. Only 10 percent of the energy stored in an organism can be passed on to the next trophic level. Of the remaining energy, some is used for the organism’s life processes, and the rest is

a.

used in reproduction.

c.

stored as fat.

b.

stored as body tissue.

d.

eliminated as heat.



____ 18. Matter can recycle through the biosphere because

a.

matter is passed out of the body as waste.

b.

matter is assembled into chemical compounds.

c.

biological systems do not use up matter, they transform it.

d.

biological systems use only carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, and nitrogen.



____ 19. Nitrogen fixation is carried out primarily by

a.

humans.

c.

bacteria.

b.

plants.

d.

consumers.



____ 20. The greenhouse effect is

a.

the result of an excess of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.

b.

a natural phenomenon that maintains Earth’s temperature range.

c.

the result of the differences in the angle of the sun’s rays.

d.

an unnatural phenomenon that causes heat energy to be radiated back into the atmosphere.



____ 21. Earth has three main climate zones because of the differences in latitude and, thus,

a.

amount of precipitation received.

c.

ocean currents.

b.

angle of heating.

d.

prevailing winds.



____ 22. Each of the following is an abiotic factor in the environment EXCEPT

a.

plant life.

c.

rainfall.

b.

soil type.

d.

temperature.



____ 23. Which is a biotic factor that affects the size of a population in a specific ecosystem?

a.

average temperature of the ecosystem

b.

type of soil in the ecosystem

c.

number and kinds of predators in the ecosystem

d.

concentration of oxygen in the ecosystem



____ 24. An organism’s niche is

a.

the range of physical and biological conditions in which an organism lives and the way in which it uses those conditions.

b.

all the physical and biological factors in the organism’s environment.

c.

the range of temperatures that the organism needs to survive.

d.

a full description of the place an organism lives.



____ 25. A symbiotic relationship in which both species benefit is

a.

commensalism.

c.

predation.

b.

mutualism.

d.

parasitism.



____ 26. The symbiotic relationship between a flower and the insect that feeds on its nectar is an example of

a.

mutualism because the flower provides the insect with food and the insect pollinates the flower.

b.

parasitism because the insect lives off the nectar from the flower.

c.

commensalism because the insect does not harm the flower and the flower does not benefit from the relationship.

d.

predation because the insect feeds on the flower.



____ 27. A predator can increase the numbers of certain species in its habitat by

a.

killing and eating the competitors of other species.

b.

living symbiotically with other species.

c.

avoiding certain prey species.

d.

crowding out the species it does not eat.



____ 28. An example of a place with a microclimate is

a.

a mountain range capped with ice.

c.

an orchid growing in a rain forest.

b.

a forested park in a desert city.

d.

coniferous trees in a temperate forest.



____ 29. Which of the following can influence the climate in a small area within a biome?

a.

the average temperature and precipitation

b.

the latitude of the biome

c.

natural features such as a lake

d.

the greenhouse effect



____ 30. Which biome is characterized by very low temperatures, little precipitation, and permafrost?

a.

desert

c.

tundra

b.

temperate forest

d.

tropical dry forest



____ 31. Which two biomes have the least amount of precipitation?

a.

tropical rain forest and temperate grassland

b.

tropical savanna and tropical dry forest

c.

tundra and desert

d.

boreal forest and temperate woodland and shrubland



____ 32. Aquatic ecosystems are classified by all of the following EXCEPT

a.

depth and flow of the water.

c.

organisms that live there.

b.

temperature of the water.

d.

chemistry of the water.



____ 33. The photic zone

a.

extends to the bottom of the open ocean.

b.

extends to a depth of about 200 meters.

c.

is deep, cold, and permanently dark.

d.

is where chemosynthetic bacteria are the producers.



____ 34. Which of the following is NOT one of the factors that play a role in population growth rate?

a.

immigration

c.

emigration

b.

death rate

d.

demography



____ 35. One of the main characteristics of a population is its

a.

change over time.

c.

dynamics.

b.

geographic distribution.

d.

habitat.



____ 36. There are 150 Saguaro cactus plants per square kilometer in a certain area of Arizona desert. To which population characteristic does this information refer?

a.

growth rate

c.

age structure

b.

geographic distribution

d.

population density



____ 37. A small farming community in Texas covers 14 square kilometers. There are 420 individuals who live within the town limits. What is the population density of this community?

a.

0.03 individuals per square kilometer

b.

53 individuals per square kilometer

c.

30 individuals per square kilometer

d.

10.24 individuals per square kilometer



____ 38. Which of the following tells you population density?

a.

the number of births per year

b.

the number of frogs in a pond

c.

the number of deaths per year

d.

the number of bacteria per square millimeter



____ 39. The movement of organisms into a given area from another area is called

a.

immigration.

c.

population shift.

b.

emigration.

d.

carrying capacity.



____ 40. What must occur in a population for it to grow?

a.

The birthrate becomes higher than the death rate.

b.

The birthrate stays the same and the death rate increases.

c.

The birthrate becomes lower than the death rate.

d.

The birthrate and the death rate remain the same.



____ 41. What is happening in a population as it decreases?

a.

The birthrate and the death rate remain the same.

b.

The death rate becomes lower than the birthrate.

c.

The death rate stays the same and the birthrate increases.

d.

The death rate becomes higher than the birthrate.



____ 42. Which are two ways a population can decrease in size?

a.

immigration and emigration

c.

decreased birthrate and emigration

b.

increased death rate and immigration

d.

emigration and increased birthrate



____ 43. As resources in a population become less available, the population

a.

declines rapidly.

c.

reaches carrying capacity.

b.

increases slowly.

d.

enters a phase of exponential growth.



____ 44. A biotic or an abiotic resource in the environment that causes population size to decrease is a

a.

carrying capacity.

c.

limiting factor.

b.

limiting nutrient.

d.

growth factor.



____ 45. If a population grows larger than the carrying capacity of the environment, the

a.

death rate may rise.

c.

death rate must fall.

b.

birthrate may rise.

d.

birthrate must fall.



____ 46. Water lilies do not grow in desert sand because water availability to these plants in a desert is

a.

a limiting factor.

c.

a competition factor.

b.

the carrying capacity.

d.

none of the above



____ 47. Which of the following is a density-independent limiting factor?

a.

earthquake

c.

emigration

b.

disease

d.

parasitism

Ecosystems

Answer Section


MULTIPLE CHOICE


1. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: B REF: p. 63

OBJ: 3.1.1


2. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: B REF: p. 63

OBJ: 3.1.1


3. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: B REF: p. 64

OBJ: 3.1.1


4. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: B REF: p. 65

OBJ: 3.1.2 STA: SC.H.1.4.1


5. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: A REF: p. 65

OBJ: 3.1.2 STA: SC.H.1.4.1


6. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: p. 65

OBJ: 3.1.2 STA: SC.H.1.4.1


7. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: B REF: p. 67

OBJ: 3.2.1 STA: SC.G.1.4.1


8. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: B REF: p. 67

OBJ: 3.2.1


9. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: A REF: p. 67

OBJ: 3.2.2 STA: SC.G.1.4.2


10. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: A REF: p. 68

OBJ: 3.2.1 STA: SC.G.1.4.1


11. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: B REF: p. 68

OBJ: 3.2.1 STA: SC.G.1.4.1


12. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: B REF: p. 69

OBJ: 3.2.2 STA: SC.G.1.4.2


13. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: B REF: p. 70

OBJ: 3.2.2 STA: SC.G.1.4.2


14. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: A REF: p. 72

OBJ: 3.2.3


15. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: A REF: p. 69

OBJ: 3.2.2 STA: SC.G.1.4.2


16. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: A REF: p. 73

OBJ: 3.2.3


17. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: A REF: p. 72

OBJ: 3.2.3 STA: SC.G.1.4.2


18. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: A REF: p. 74

OBJ: 3.3.1 STA: SC.G.1.4.3


19. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: B REF: p. 78

OBJ: 3.3.1 STA: SC.G.1.4.3


20. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: p. 87

OBJ: 4.1.2 STA: SC.G.2.4.4


21. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: A REF: p. 88

OBJ: 4.1.3 STA: SC.G.2.4.4


22. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: B REF: p. 90

OBJ: 4.2.1 STA: SC.G.2.4.4


23. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: A REF: p. 90

OBJ: 4.2.1 STA: SC.G.2.4.4


24. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: B REF: p. 91

OBJ: 4.2.1 STA: SC.G.1.4.1


25. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: B REF: p. 93

OBJ: 4.2.2 STA: SC.G.1.4.1


26. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: A REF: p. 93

OBJ: 4.2.2 STA: SC.G.1.4.1


27. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: p. 92 | p. 93

OBJ: 4.2.2 STA: SC.G.1.4.1


28. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: A REF: p. 98

OBJ: 4.3.1


29. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: p. 99

OBJ: 4.3.1


30. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: B REF: p. 104

OBJ: 4.3.2


31. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: A REF: p. 101 | p. 104

OBJ: 4.3.2


32. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: B REF: p. 106

OBJ: 4.4.1 STA: SC.G.2.4.4


33. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: B REF: p. 109

OBJ: 4.4.3 STA: SC.G.2.4.4


34. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: B REF: p. 120

OBJ: 5.1.2


35. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: B REF: p. 119

OBJ: 5.1.1


36. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: A REF: p. 119

OBJ: 5.1.1


37. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: p. 119

OBJ: 5.1.1


38. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: p. 119

OBJ: 5.1.1


39. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: B REF: p. 120

OBJ: 5.1.2


40. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: A REF: p. 120

OBJ: 5.1.2


41. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: A REF: p. 120

OBJ: 5.1.2


42. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: A REF: p. 122

OBJ: 5.1.2


43. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: A REF: p. 122

OBJ: 5.1.3 STA: SC.G.2.4.5


44. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: B REF: p. 124

OBJ: 5.2.1 STA: SC.G.2.4.5


45. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: A REF: p. 122

OBJ: 5.2.1 STA: SC.G.2.4.5


46. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: p. 124 | p. 127

OBJ: 5.2.1 STA: SC.G.2.4.5


47. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: B REF: p. 127

OBJ: 5.2.2 STA: SC.G.2.4.5

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